Romans 3:21-31, response to Moo

i was brought up with this passage being the passage that was far beyond all others, this was considered classic paul and what Paul meant for the entire bible. But i disagree with the understanding that my Christian School gave me (which shall remain nameless), but it went along the lines of "Jesus is the golden ticket, just have faith in him and you get your get out of hell free care", sound familiar. This was the proof text for this understanding. You could try and argue a different understanding and they would always point to this text.

Summary of what Paul could have meant

v.21- Moo brings out some good points. This verse signals the dawn of a new age that has come throughthe righteousness of God being manifested. I would like to suggest that this manifestation is actually Jesus' faithful act of obedience to the Father. I would also like to suggest that the apart from the law, means that Jesus did not manifest his righteousness from the Law, but the Law points to him manifesting his righteousness in the but now of the new age. Because of this his salvation is universally available. Note here I am referring to the righteousness in this passage as Jesus' and not ours.

v.22a- Moo in this verse discusses the translation of pistis and he concludes that it sould remain translated as faith in Jesus, I disagree with him here. I think it should be translated as faithfulness of Jesus or faith of Jesus (not that I am an expert at Greek with my whole semester of it) his argument that it would be bad theology to translate it this way does not compel me to agree with him in the slightest. The passage has been talking about God's faithfulness to judge and his faithfulness to the covenant, why would it change now, its just too unlikely for my liking.

vv.22b-23- There is no distinction- i think is pretty self explanatory, everyone is on the same boat- both Jew and Gentile, I think that it would be near impossible to read this text and not come to that conclusion for that has been Paul's point so far, that we all come before God as equals. It is established here what has been said for 3 chapters that none are right before God because they sin and they fall short of the glory of God

v.24- In this verse the solution to the human predicament of have been declared fallen short of the glory of God is found. Our lack of faithfulness is addressed here, God has found a way to fulfill the covenant and it was through the faithfulness of his Son that he addressed our lack of faithfulness and canceled our debts as a free gift. I am not saying here that God imputed his own obedience here into us somehow. I am still yet to think this through and wonder how to carry this thought completely though. I have a question here which is this verse must be understood within covenantal terms but what exactly has Jesus done here, i am not sure.

v.25- in my esv translation here the work propiation is used, i am going to admit i know its something to do with redemption but i have got no idea, i am aware its translated differently over many translations. According to the dictionary on my computer it means to gain favour or to regain favour. From Moo's work I can gather that it an atonement work which needs to be understood within an OT sacrificial setting. I can't really grasp whats going on here, but i think whats happening is that Jesus' blood was spilt for ours. And we can receive this salvation by faith. This shows that God is faithful to his covenant, and why he is still faithful even though he is passing over our former sins even though he would have the right not to.

v.26- I kind of touched on this last verse and will say it again. The context of this verse shows the faithfulness of Jesus to the covenant, he is just to justify because those who have faith in Jesus co-operate with the grace of God and are given the status of righteousness

v.27- Paul here is probably referring to the Jews- who probably thought they had some special rights before God. However they have no right to boast, according to Paul because it is not a law of works but a law of faith.

v.28- The reason not to boast continues according to Moo which is that no merit before God can be gained through works because it is given through faith. This however cannot meant merit for salvation in this context, but whether or not Gentiles come to the covenant family as fully-equal individuals. If it were by works then maybe the Jews would have a reason to boast, but if it is by faith then they have no reason.

vv.29-30- Paul is establishing here again that the one God Yahweh is the God of all. God justifies both the Jews and the gentiles by the same means, another reason not to boast!

v.31- Paul here cannot be accused of being ant-nomian, as discussed later in Romans it is quite clear that thorugh faith in Jesus by walking in the Spirit, we do what the Law intended to do. Which is demonstrate who the people of God are by their works.